Monday, November 09, 2009
Questions in Hebrew
Thursday, October 15, 2009
Follow-up On Jesus and the Antichrist
Wednesday, October 14, 2009
Did Jesus Name the Antichrist?
There is currently a video clip making the rounds on the internet in which the narrator asks, and “answers” this question. His argumentation is as follows:
First, Luke 10:18 says, “And he said unto them, I beheld Satan as lightning fall from heaven.” (KJV). The narrator says that while this was written in Greek, Jesus would have originally spoken the words in Aramaic which he claims was the most ancient form of Hebrew. At this point the listener should ignore everything that follows. Aramaic is a language related to Hebrew (that is, they both belong to the Semitic family of languages), but Aramaic is in no way a form of Hebrew. While there is some academic dispute whether Jesus taught in Aramaic of Greek, for the sake of the argument, let us assume that he spoke in Aramaic, since this man’s argument depends on it. From this verse, using the Hebrew lexicon of Strong’s Concordance, he finds the word baraq, which is the Hebrew word for “lightning.” He needs the Hebrew form, because the Imperial Aramaic form (that used in the Old Testament period) is birqun. The Syriac form (Syriac being a late form of Aramaic), found in the Syriac Peshitta translation of the Bible, is birqa’. Thus he has established that lightning is baraq. And unless you’re really dense, you already see where this is going.
Second, he moves to Isaiah 14:12-19, which he interprets as referring to Satan (a standard view among dispensational interpreters, but not usually found among interpreters from other theological backgrounds). In this passage, he focuses on vs 14, which says, I will ascend above the heights.” “Heights” in this passage is the Hebrew word bamah. This, he implicitly imports into Luke
Third, he observes that the Hebrew vav, which is attached at the beginning of words, and functions as a conjunction, is pronounced “u” or “o.” Thus, “lightning from heaven” would be pronounced barak obama. Unfortunately, everything is against him. “lightning from heaven” requires the preposition min, not the conjunction vav. Further, the word “heavens” which Jesus would have used is, in Aramaic, shamaya’, not bama. Thus, the Aramaic which Jesus would have used would have been pronounced birqa’ min shamaya’ which is, of course, nowhere close to baraq obama. Now one may or may not like President Obama and his politics, but this kind of silliness ought to be soundly rebuked and denied by serious Christians.
Wednesday, September 30, 2009
Longman-Adam Follow-up
Longman on Adam, or Why I'm Not Surprised
Saturday, September 19, 2009
On Avoiding Over-Interpretation
Saturday, August 08, 2009
God forbid that we should bequeath such Sabbaths to our children.
Charles Dickens, Little Dorrit, Book One, Chapter 3
Wednesday, July 01, 2009
Out of the Country
Saturday, June 27, 2009
Uncle Ben's Book Blog: The Sharing Knife: Vol. 1: Beguilement
Song of Songs: Response to Chris Carter, Part 1
Uncle Ben's Book Blog: 1844: Vol. 1, Religious Movements
Monday, June 22, 2009
Uncle Ben's Book Blog: Assorted Books
Exegetical Notes; The Song of Songs: Is it Literal?
Monday, June 15, 2009
Uncle Ben's Book Blog: 1491:New Revelations of the Americas Before Columbus
Saturday, June 13, 2009
Exegetical Notes: ThePatriarchal History
Monday, June 08, 2009
Uncle Ben's Book Blog: The Peculiar Life of Sundays
Saturday, June 06, 2009
Uncle Ben's Book Blog: "Sunday" Update
Leviticus 18:9-11, or What Constitutes Incest?
Literal Translation
9. The nakedness of your sister, the daughter of your father or the daughter of your mother, born in the house or born outside, you shall not uncover their nakedness.
10. The nakedness of the daughter of your son or the daughter of your daughter, you shall not uncover their nakedness; for they are your nakedness.
11. The nakedness of the daughter of the wife of your father, born of your father, your sister she is. You shall not uncover her nakedness.
The key term here is moledet, which I have translated as “born.” In the twenty or so occurrences of this word in the Old Testament, it appears to have two distinct senses. The first is roughly equivalent to the English “kin,” as for example in Gen 12:1, “Go from your land, and from your kin (moledet), and from the house of your father.” Thus moledet is something between immediate family and the larger group land or people (see also Esther
The text does not seem to include a situation where man A, who has son a, marries woman B who has daughter b, with b being utterly unrelated to A. However, if the ESV rendering is correct, then the passage does address this situation. The problem is that the ESV rendering implies that what makes a and b effectively brother and sister is the fact that they were reared together. That is not true with the case under consideration. In the case under consideration, the children were raised apart, and did not enter into the same family until they were both of marriageable age.
My conclusion is that on the basis of a strict exegesis, the text at most can be read to imply that the marriage of a and b is prohibited. But it does not clearly so state. There may be other considerations that would oppose the marriage of the two, but I don’t see how it can be done on the basis of this text. There may be family considerations and dynamics involved in this particular case that would make the marriage of the two unwise, but on reconsideration, I don’t think Morecraft has an airtight case.